May 05

THE GOSPEL’S PLAN OF SALVATION

“The Gospel’s” means that it is of, and comes from the Gospel. Not from a man. Not from a council of men. Not from our “feelings.” It is from the Gospel as delivered by inspired men (2 Tim. 3:16; 2 Pet. 1:20,21). Thus, it is the Divine message given by Deity; and it does make a difference as to whether we follow the real Gospel or a perverted gospel (Gal. 1:8,9; John 8:30,31).
“Plan” is that which God has required men to do in order to come into contact with the cleansing blood of Christ. It is the answer to the question, “What must I do to be saved?” (Acts 2:37).
“Of salvation” means being saved, having one’s sins forgiven, getting into Christ, entering into the Kingdom, being reconciled to God, being born again, becoming a child of God and entering into the church which is composed of the saved.
What, then, is the Gospel’s plan of salvation?
First, one must HEAR the Gospel. “How shall they believe on him of whom they have not heard? And how shall they hear without a preacher?” (Rom. 10:14).
Second, after hearing the Gospel, one will either BELIEVE it or disbelieve it. If one wishes to follow God’s plan, he must believe. “It pleased God by the foolishness of preaching to save them that believe” (1 Cor. 1:21).
Third, there must be a REPENTING. “Except ye repent, ye shall all likewise perish” (Luke 13:3). Repentance is a godly sorrow for having done sin, which leads to a change of mind from disobedience to obedience (2 Cor. 7:10; Mat. 21:28-32).
Fourth, one must make the good CONFESSION. “That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus…thou shalt be saved” (Rom. 10:9).
Fifth, if one seeks to follows The Gospel’s Plan Of Salvation, he then must be BAPTIZED in order to be saved.

“He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved” (Mark 16:16).
“Even baptism doth also now save us” (1 Pet. 3:21).
“Repent and be baptized…for the remission of sins” (Acts 2:38).
“Be baptized, and wash away thy sins” (Acts 22:16).

Since Jesus foretold of those who thought they were saved when in actuallity they were not, (Mat. 7:21-23), it is obvious that there are false and unavailing plans which are being taught and believed which do not save. The following of any other plan in any other order does not do anything other than deceive a person into thinking that he is saved when in actuality he is still lost.
It is our earnest plea that men follow the GOSPEL’S plan of salvation.

Gary Henson

Permanent link to this article: https://okcsbs.com/the-gospels-plan-of-salvation-2/

Apr 28

GIVING

One of the wonderful aspects of humanity that occurs year-round without end is that of giving. People give of their finances, time and attention to others in their birthdays, weddings, graduations, births, illnesses, charities and at Christmas. Giving is one of the attributes which distinguishes humans from animals–they basically take; people give.
In the language in which the NT was written, there are seventeen different words used to describe giving–a giving which God has done, and a giving which man is to do. Consider the giving of God, and the giving of man:

THE GIVING OF GOD:
I will give you rest (Mat 11:28).
My peace I give unto you (John 14:27).
To give light to them that sit in darkness (Luke 1:79).
To give knowledge of salvation (Luke 1:77).
The Son of man came…to give his life a ransom for many (Mat 20:28).
To give…forgiveness of sins (Acts 5:31).
I give unto them eternal life (John 10:28).

THE GIVING OF MAN:
Give to him that needeth (Eph 4:28).
Give to the poor (Mat 19:21).
Every man according as he purposeth in his heart, so let him give; not grudgingly, or of necessity: for God loveth a cheerful giver (2 Cor 9:7).
Giving thanks always for all things unto God (Eph 5:20).
As we consider that which God has given us, we are truly in debt and no amount of giving on our part could ever begin to “pay back” that which we have received. Nevertheless, as “freely [as] ye have received, [we are to] freely give” (Mat 10:8 ), while we “…remember the words of the Lord Jesus, how he said, It is more blessed to give than to receive” (Acts 20:35).

Gary Henson

Permanent link to this article: https://okcsbs.com/giving/

Apr 21

DISCIPLINE: AN ACT OF LOVE

Our God loves all men (those in the world; those in the church; those who have fallen away [John 3:16; 2 Pet. 3:9])–and so should the Christian (Mark 12:31). While God’s ideal Will is unity in the church (1 Cor. 1:10), unity with sin is condemned (Rev. 2:15-16, 20) and division with evil is upheld (Eph. 5:11). Thus, God, in His love for the church to keep it pure and His love for an apostate to save his fallen soul, has set forth His law of discipline (2 Thes. 3:6-15; 1 Cor. 5:1-13).
God’s law of discipline consists of both positive (directive; preventative) and negative (corrective; exclusive). Positive, in that, by means of instructions of the Bible (as in Bible classes, sermons, etc.) the church is to keep itself from becoming disorderly (Heb. 3:12-13; 2 Tim. 4:1- 5). Negative, in that, when Scriptural steps are taken, there is the exclusion of the disorderly from the fellowship of the church (Mat. 18:15-17; 1 Cor. 5:1-13; 2 Thes. 3:6-15; Rom. 16:17-18; Eph. 5:11-12; 2 John 9-11: Titus 3:10-11).
The purpose of church discipline is three-fold: (1) to save the erring Christian (2 Thes. 3:14; 1 Tim. 1:20; 1 Cor. 5:5); (2) to save the souls of the church from being influenced to do the same (1 Cor. 5:6); (3) to save the world (Acts 5:11; Note: sin and hypocrisy will keep the world from being saved, Rom. 2:26f).
The motive of church discipline is love, for it is the attempt to save the soul (2 Cor. 2:3-4; Rev. 3:19; Prov. 13:26; Heb. 12:6), and is always to be done in meekness/kindness/gentleness (Gal. 6:1).
God identifies those who are to be disciplined: [1] Those who walk disorderly (2 Thes. 3:6). This is a general reference to anyone who persists in a transgression of God’s law (2 Thes. 3:6, 14; 2:15). [2] False teachers. Such are those who bring not the teachings of Christ (2 John 10), who are heretics (Titus 3:10) and who cause divisions (which false teachings do) (Rom. 16:17). [3] Those who practice false doctrine (2 John 9). [4] Those who are immoral or worldly (Eph. 5:11; 1 Cor. 5:9). [5] Those who sin against a brother but will not repent (Mat. 18:15-18). These are those who have already lost their fellowship with God (1 John 1:6) and are to be disciplined in love and meekness by the church for the purpose of saving souls.
After mourning and praying for the one in error (1 Cor. 5:2; 1 John 5:16), the church is to visit to seek to convert (James 5:19-20; 1 Thes. 5:14; Gal. 6:1; Mat. 18:15-17). If, following such visits the erring repents, we have gained our brother (Mat. 18:15) and are to forgive and greatly rejoice (Luke 15:11-32); however, after a fair period of time if there is no repentance, there is to be the withdrawing of fellowship. This means that: [1] he is to be noted and marked before the church (2 Thes. 3:14; Rom. 16:17); [2] he is no longer in spiritual fellowship with any member of the church (Eph. 5:11; Mat. 18:17; 1 Cor. 5:7; 2 Thes. 3:6; 2 John 9); [3] there will be the cessation of the engagement of social company and interchange (1 Cor. 5:11; 2 Thes. 3:14; Rom. 16:17 [Note: this does not negate family responsibility, otherwise there would be the transgressing of God’s laws regarding these matters, 1 Tim. 5:8; 1 Cor. 7:3-5, 10; Eph. 5:22-25; 6:1-3]); [4] the offender (if he attends worship) is not to be asked to take a leading part in worship (Titus 3:10; Rom. 16:17); [5] whenever a member meets the offender, there is to be no greeting which conveys acceptance (2 John 9); and [6] when a member encounters the offender, the member, in love for his soul, is to reprove and admonish him (Eph. 5:11; 2 Thes. 3:15).
Truly, church discipline must be the most difficult thing a Christian is to do. However, with love for his eternal soul, the difficulty becomes a desire.

Gary Henson

Permanent link to this article: https://okcsbs.com/discipline-an-act-of-love/

Apr 15

DOES GOD “TAKE PEOPLE”?

QUESTION: All people die, but when we die, is it because God “took them” (that is, God decided to actively end their lives by means of an accident, illness or even a murder)?
ANSWER: If God directly takes us at His desire, then…
1. Why, since God is not a respecter of persons (Acts 10:34), did He save apostle Peter from death, but let apostle James be killed? (Acts 12).
2. God should be totally happy when “taking people” since everything went according to His Will. However, regarding such a matter, God Himself groaned in the spirit and wept (John 11:33-35).
3. God is rightly blamed for tearing a precious child from the arms of loving parents thereby causing the parents great and long lasting anguish of heart. [Question: Since Herod did such a thing (Mat. 2:16), should he then be praised instead of abhorred?]

Also consider this compound, yet valid and sound argument: If God directly “takes people” (i.e., caused their death), and if Christians were put to death by persecutors of Christianity (Luke 11:49), then God is the source (i.e., the one responsible) for the persecution of Christians to their death. Thus, if God is the source for the persecution of Christians to their death, then: (1) the persecutors are not guilty (for they were only carrying out the Will of God [Mat. 7:21]); (2) God is guilty of great evil (1 John 3:15); and (3) God is involved in self-destruction (2 Tim. 3:12). However, it is not the case that the persecutors were not guilty (1 Thes. 2:15; cf., Acts 2:36); nor is it the case that God is guilty of evil (Deut. 32:4; 1 John 1:5); nor is it the case that God is involved in self-destruction (Mat. 12:24-30). Thus, it is not the case that God is the source (the one responsible) for the persecution of Christians to their deaths. Therefore, it is not the case that God directly “takes people” (causes their deaths).

The truth of the matter is, God does not directly end the lives of people. Rather, it is this. The world in which we live (which is a temporary testing [not, tempting] place in which it is determined whether or not one chooses to believe, love and obey God) has laws of nature which may be violated. For example: (1) gravity holds us down, but if we fall off a cliff we will suffer damage; (2) fire is most useful for cooking and for heat, but a bumped candle can burn a house (and those in it); (3) knives can cut rope, but if we are not careful they cut our finger or pierce our heart; (4) etc. Furthermore, there are religious and moral laws of God. When a man chooses not to obey God, he sins. Sometimes those sins are directed to others by which they may even be murdered. Actually, all causes of death are due to man’s sin. It is very important to remember that God made a perfect garden for man, including a tree therein of which eating its fruit would keep them from dying (Gen. 2:9-3:22). Yet, man’s sin resulted in his expulsion. Furthermore, due to man’s great sin, God brought the flood (Gen. 6) which severely changed the world from that which was very good (Gen. 1:31) into that which now has earthquakes, tornadoes, hurricanes, diseases and such like (2 Pet. 3:6). Thus, today, when a person dies, it is because he lives in a physical world of which he has come into conflict with the physical dangers therein—and not because God decided to directly take them.

Gary Henson

Permanent link to this article: https://okcsbs.com/does-god-take-people/

Apr 07

DO CHRISTIANS PERFORM MIRACLES TODAY?

Anyone who believes the Bible is certainly aware of the fact that the early church performed miracles. In the book of Acts men spoke in tongues (2:4-6), healed a lame man (3:6), cast out unclean spirits (5:16), cured a paralytic (9:34), brought Dorcas back from the dead (9:40) and did many other signs and wonders (5:12). However, do Christians today perform miracles? What do the Scriptures say?
After the apostles had laid their hands upon a disciple named Philip (Acts 6:5-6), Philip walked thirty-five miles to the city of Samaria where he preached, performed miracles and converted several people. Then, “when the apostles who were at Jerusalem heard that Samaria had received the word of God, they sent Peter and John to them, who, when they had come down, prayed for them that they might receive the Holy Spirit….Then they laid hands on them, and they received the Holy Spirit. And when Simon saw that through the laying on of the apostles’ hands the Holy Spirit was given, he offered them money, saying, ‘Give me this power also, that anyone on whom I lay my hands may receive the Holy Spirit’” (Acts 8:14-19). But Peter rebuked him. Question: If Philip had the ability to lay his hands on the people who were standing right next to him so that they too could perform miracles, him so that they too could perform miracles, why didn’t he do it–instead of making the apostles walk 35 miles (70 round trip) to do it? It is obvious–Philip could not do it; it took an apostle.
Furthermore, Luke, the inspired writer of the book of Acts, recorded it accurately when he wrote “and when Simon saw that through the laying on of ____?____ hands the Holy Spirit was given.” Answer: The apostles. Thus, quite clearly, the Scriptures inform us that the means to obtain the ability to perform miracles was achieved only by the laying on of the apostles’ hands. Question: What happened when the last apostle died? Answer: The means of obtaining the ability to perform miracles ceased.
1 Corinthians 13:8-10 informs us, “Love never fails. But whether there are prophecies, they will fail; whether there are tongues, they will cease; whether there is knowledge, it will vanish away. For we know in part and we prophecy in part. But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part will be done away.” True or false: The prophecies, tongues and knowledge were miraculous abilities. [Note: see 1 Cor. 12:7-10]. True. True or false: These miracles were said to some day fail, cease, vanish away and be done away. True. These miracles are also described as what? Answer: That which is partial. When is the partial (the miracles) to be done away? Answer: “When that which is perfect is come.” What, then, is that which is perfect? God makes it very clear: “He who looks into the perfect law of liberty…” (Jam. 1:25). The “perfect” is “the perfect law of liberty” which is the completed (in contrast to partial) New Testament. Do you recall that the purpose of miracles was to confirm/prove that what the preachers said was indeed from God? (Mark 16:17-20). Thus, piece by piece, the miracles would confirm part of the Word until all had been revealed and thus making it that which is perfect. Thus, since we now have the completed and perfect law of God in the 27 books of the NT [which occurred by the end of the 1st century], miracles have been done away.

Tell us plainly, do Christians today perform miracles? No.

Gary Henson
“Tell Us Plainly…” (#10)

Permanent link to this article: https://okcsbs.com/do-christians-perform-miracles-today/

Mar 31

Can A Child Of God Become Lost Again?

Every single human being is either a child of God or a child of the devil. Thus, what a wonderful moment it is when a person becomes a child of God. Yet, is it possible for a Christian to so live as to be lost again? What saith the Scriptures?
Galatians 5:4 declares, “Christ is become of no effect unto you, whosoever of you are justified by the law; ye are fallen from grace.” Since this law contains the requirement of circumcision (v:3), and since the Old Testament law of Moses had the requirement of circumcision, then the law under consideration in verse four is what law? It is the Old Testament law of Moses. Thus, the verse teaches that any New Testament Christian (who is to be following the law of Christ [Gal. 6:2]) who attempts to follow the law of Moses in order to be justified, is a Christian to whom Christ has become of no effect.
True or false: A person cannot become that which he already is. True. For example, a Christian cannot become a Christian because he already is a Christian. Likewise, with Galatians 5:4, Christ does not become of no effect to non-Christians because (if they were to die in that condition) Christ would already be of no effect to them. Thus, in order to become of no effect, these people had to already have had the effect of Christ, which means that these people were what? They were Christians.
Can it be said of a saved person that Christ is of no effect to him? Of course not. What does this verse say regarding those Christians who attempted to be justified by the law of Moses? “Christ is become of no effect unto you.” Thus, were these children of God still in a saved condition? No.
Hebrews 6:4-6 reads, “For it is impossible for those who were once enlightened, and have tasted the heavenly gift, and have become partakers of the Holy Spirit, and have tasted the good works of God and the powers of the age to come, if they fall away, to renew them again to repentance, since they crucify again for themselves the Son of God, and put Him to an open shame.“
Do the following phrases describe someone who has been saved? Enlightened; tasted the heavenly gift; become partakers of the Holy Spirit; tasted the good works of God and the powers of the age to come. Yes, they describe someone who has been saved.
Do the following phrases describe those who are still saved, or have become lost: they fall away; they crucify again the Son of God; they put Jesus to an open shame? Yes, they describe those who have become lost.
Thus, those who became saved can so live as to be lost again.
2 Peter 2:1 states, “But there were false prophets among the people, even as there will be false teachers among you, who will secretly bring in destructive heresies, even denying the Lord who bought them, and bring on themselves swift destruction.”
True or false: Are those who are lost regarded as having been bought by (and thus belonging to) Jesus? Certainly not. Were those in the above verse bought by Jesus? Yes. Thus, were they saved or lost? They were saved.
What will happen to anyone who shall deny Jesus? Jesus said “him I will also deny before my Father who is in heaven” (Mat. 10:33). Thus, were these people (in 2 Peter 2:1) who had been bought by Jesus still in the saved condition? No.
Is heaven regarded as a place of destruction? No. Is hell regarded as a place of destruction? Yes (Mat. 7:13). Thus, these people who were once in the saved condition have so lived to “bring on themselves swift destruction.” These saved people had become lost again.
Tell us plainly, do the Scriptures teach that it is possible for a child of God to so live as to be lost again? Yes.

Gary Henson
Series on: “Tell us plainly” (John 10:24)

Permanent link to this article: https://okcsbs.com/can-a-child-of-god-become-lost-again/

Mar 24

What Do The Scriptures Authorize In Worship With Song?

Since Jesus stated, “But in vain do they worship me, teaching for doctrines the commandments of men” (Mat. 15:9), it is clear that (1) it is possible for men to worship God in a means which is following a teaching of mere men [in contrast to that which God has instructed], and (2) such worship is sinful. Thus, worshiping God in song as He instructed is truly a crucial matter. What saith the Scriptures?
One may attempt to worship God by (1) making music; (2) singing only; (3) playing an instrument only; (4) whistling only; (5) humming only; (6) a combination of any of 2 through 5. Notice: number one (making music) is a general term, but numbers 2 through 5 are each specific. Thus, if God tells us to “make music,” then we may freely choose whatever method of making music we wish. However, if He has only told us to hum, then we must hum and only hum. We would not be able to sing because He has not told us to sing. Nor would we be able to play an instrument or whistle for the same reason. It is as Colossians 3:17 tells us, “And whatsoever you do in word or deed, do all in the name of the Lord Jesus.” Since “in the name of” means “by the authority of” (Acts 4:7; John 10:25 + Mat. 21:23), then everything a Christian teaches in doctrine and does in practice must be authorized by God (so instructed by means of His Scriptures). What then, does God authorize? He tells us to “sing” (Eph. 5:19), “sing” (Col. 3:16), “sing” (Mat. 26:30), “sing” (Mark 14:26), “sing” (Acts 16:25), “sing” (Rom. 15:9), “sing” (1 Cor. 14:15), “sing” (Heb. 2:12) and “sing” (Jam. 5:13). These are all the New Testament instructions or examples for the Christian in regard to worship in song. What is it then that God authorizes? Singing, and only singing.
OBJECTION: “David used mechanical instruments” Yes, but David was a Jew living under the Old Testament Law which is no longer in effect (Col. 2:14).
OBJECTION: “They have harps in heaven (Rev. 5:8).” Yes, but they are in heaven, we are on earth.
OBJECTION: “The NIV says ‘make music’ in Eph. 5:19, and making music includes playing instruments.” The NIV, although popular, is an unreliable translation with numerous crucial verses mistranslated, of which Ephesians 5:19 is one. The NIV is a “thought translation”–it gives us what the translators think God meant. It does not attempt to make a direct translation of the Greek (as did the KJV). In its preface it is admitted that the translators “have striven for more than a word-for-word translation.” Thus, with the NIV you have no assurance that what you read is what God said or what the translators think!
Tell us plainly, what do the Scriptures authorize in worship in song? We are to sing, period. All else is vain worship as the worshipers are acting upon the teachings of mere men.

Gary Henson
Series on: “Tell us plainly” (John 10:24)

Permanent link to this article: https://okcsbs.com/what-do-the-scriptures-authorize-in-worship-with-song/

Mar 16

How Did Jesus Organize His Church?

This question certainly cannot be answered by looking at the denominations today. They are organized in so many different ways (presidents, pastor systems, popes, synods, general assemblies, presbyteries, councils, conferences, etc.) we would find no definite answer. Thus, we must look to God and His Word to find out what He has said.
The HEAD of the church is Jesus. “And he is the head of the body, the church; who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead; that in all things he might have the preeminence” (Col. 1:18). Again, “And he put all things in subjection under his feet, and gave him to be the head over all things to the church, which is his body” (Eph. 1:22-23). Who is it that is the head of the church? It is Jesus. How many heads does one body have? One. Then, is there any room for any one (or any one group) to exist and function as a head on earth? No. Both verses also mention that this headship extends to what extent? All things. Is there, then, need for another head? No.
Serving under the head, and leading over each local congregation of the church, God ordained ELDERS. On Paul’s missionary trip, as he and Barnabus established churches in various cities “they had ordained them elders in every church” (Acts 14:23). Titus, while on the island of Crete, was to “ordain elders in every city” (Titus 1:5). When a major relief effort was sent from the western churches to the churches in Jerusalem and all Judea, they “sent it to the elders” (Acts 11:30). When a crucial problem arose posing a serious doctrinal threat to the church “the apostles and elders came together for to consider this matter” (Acts 15:6; see also verses 2,4,22,23). 1 Timothy 5:17 makes clear that elders were men who ruled. Thus, in the preceding verses, we learn there is a position in the church which is referred to as “elders;” that there is always to be a plurality of men who serve as elders of a congregation [Note the “s” in the verses]; that the elders do have a ruling authority; and that the elders of a local congregation ruled only over that congregation and had no authority over any other congregation.
It is also important to understand that these elders were called by other terms. When Paul “sent to Ephesus, and called the elders of the church” he also called them “overseers” [or “bishop”] (Acts 20:17,28). Furthermore, in verse 28, he told these elders/overseers “to shepherd the church of God.” Thus, they were to be “shepherds” or “pastors.” Thus, just as Christians may also be referred to as “saints,” “children of God” and “disciples,” the elders are also referred to in the Bible as those who are “overseers/bishops,” “shepherds/pastors” or “presbyters” (which is another English word for elders). Thus, from Acts 20, the careful student learns that God, by means of the three pairs of words, did not establish three different positions; rather He ordained one position but calls them by three (six in English) different terms.
At this point, it must be made very clear that “pastor” is not another term for “preacher.” First, as has been shown, “pastor” is a term for the eldership of a congregation–not the preacher(s). Second, pastors are listed separate from the evangelists (Eph. 4:11) which means that they are not the same. Third, Paul was a preacher (1 Tim. 2:7), but he was not a pastor because the qualifications of a pastor/bishop/elder is to have a wife and children (1 Tim. 3:2,4; Titus 1:5-6) of which Paul had neither. Thus, with but a little study, anyone can see that the “pastor system” (in which the preacher is in charge of the church) is not how Jesus organizes His church.
Then serving the church under the oversight of the elders are the DEACONS. Paul wrote to the church “in Philippi, with the bishops and deacons” (Phil. 1:1). The qualifications of these men are listed in 1 Timothy 3:8-12. As the elders make decisions regarding the work of the church, the deacons are to serve and help the members of the church fulfill these projects (compare Acts 6:1-6).
Tell us plainly, how did Jesus organize the church? Jesus is the sole head; then within each congregation are elders and deacons.

Gary Henson
Series on: “Tell Us Plainly” (John 10:24)

Permanent link to this article: https://okcsbs.com/how-did-jesus-organize-his-church/

Mar 10

Is There But One, Undenominational Church?

Notice very carefully what is and what is not meant by saying there is but one, undenominational church. It is not being said that there is one big, all-inclusive church which is made up of all the denominations. Neither is it being said that there is only one denomination (out of all the hundreds) which is accepted of God. Nor is it being said that the church is non-denominational (a church which accepts all denominations). Rather, the statement does mean: there was and is still yet one church which Jesus purchased with His blood (Acts 20:28); was established on the first Pentecost following Jesus’ resurrection (Acts 2) long before the invention of divisive man-made denominations; and which itself is not a denomination, does not consist of any or all denominations, and is separate from the concept of a denomination.
What then, saith the Scriptures concerning a single, undenominational church?
Ephesians 1:22-23 states, “And he put all things under his feet, and gave him to be the head over all things to the church, which is his body.” Here we see that the church is also called what? His body. Thus, the church is His body, and His body is the church. Then we come to this statement in chapter 4 verse 4, “there is one body.” “One” is singular. This means that just as there is but one Father (V:6), one Jesus (v:5), and one Holy Spirit (v:4), there is also but one body. Thus, since there is but one body, and since the body is the church, what does that tell us regarding the number of churches? There is but one church.
But, although this proves that there is only one church, could this not mean that this is referring to one big universal church that is made up of many different denominations? To answer this crucial question, consider what the figure of the head/body is illustrating. Whenever God uses a figure to illustrate a spiritual truth, He always makes use of real-life objects (lilies, birds, door, salt, etc.). Likewise, with the head/body, there is only one body attached to one head. However, since each denomination is a separate and distinct body of people with each claiming to have Jesus as its head, then denominationalism is implying the existence of a creature of a single human head with 100’s of human bodies attached to it! But such does not exist; and thus, denominations is not what makes up the body of Christ.
The truth regarding the body is revealed in 1 Corinthians 12. Again, it is made clear that there is but one body (v:12-13,20). It is also stated that there are many members which make up this body (v:12,14,20). Although the attempt is made to claim that “many members” is referring to “many denominations,” God is very clear in telling us who the “many members” are. Verse 11 states, “But all these work that one and selfsame Spirit, dividing to every man severally as he will.” Then, in the next verse, He explains how all these men work together in the church with the “body” illustration: “For as the body is one and hath many members, and all the members of that one body, being many, are one body: so also is Christ.” Thus, the members of the body are none other than individual Christians in the one church! This point is repeated in verses 27-29 in which the members are declared to be individual Christians (apostles, prophets, teachers and various workers). Furthermore, since verse 25 declares “that there should be no schism (division) in the body,” and since denominations are sharply divided over 100’s of beliefs and practices, then “members” is not denominations!
Tell us plainly, is there but one, undenominational church? Yes, there is but one, undenominational church.
What then, is to become of man-made denominations? From the words of Jesus we read, “Every plant, which my heavenly Father hath not planted, shall be rooted up” (Mat. 15:13).
Our plea to you is to come out of man-made denominations, reject man-made creed books, and use the Bible and the Bible only to become a member of the one church you read about in the Scriptures.

Gary Henson
Series on: “Tell Us Plainly” (John 10:24)

Permanent link to this article: https://okcsbs.com/is-there-but-one-undenominational-church/

Mar 04

Must A Person, Upon Being Baptized, Be Baptized For The Purpose Of Obtaining Salvation?

Many people have been baptized, but unfortunately, for the wrong reason. It usually goes like this: the person is taught only to believe in Jesus in order to be saved. Thus, the person believed, and he thinks that he was saved at that moment. He is then told to be baptized–not in order to be saved–but to manifest his previous salvation. Years later, the person finally hears the truth (that one is saved at baptism). However, the person thinks that since he had been baptized, then his sins were forgiven and thus he was saved.
But is/was he? Look again at Acts 2:38, “Repent and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins.” What is a person to be baptized for? For remission of sins. Was a person who was baptized for “the purpose of manifesting his previous salvation” baptized for the purpose of remission of sin? No. Did he receive remission of sins? No; since he was not baptized for the remission of sins then he did not receive remission of sins. Also, can a person who believes that his sins were already forgiven at the moment he believed, be baptized for the purpose of obtaining the remission of sins? Of course not.
Tell us plainly, must a person, upon being baptized, be baptized for the purpose of obtaining salvation? Yes. [Thus, a person who was baptized for any other reason other than for the purpose of obtaining remission of sins has never had his sins forgiven, and thus needs to be baptized for the correct reason.]

Gary Henson
Series on: “Tell Us Plainly” (John 10:24)

Permanent link to this article: https://okcsbs.com/must-a-person-upon-being-baptized-be-baptized-for-the-purpose-of-obtaining-salvation/

Older posts «

» Newer posts