Oct 04

IT’S THAT WORD AGAIN: IMPLICATION (4)

The reader might be wondering why we are spending so much time gathering for worship on “the first day of the week,” well, it is because most denominational churches and the churches of Christ all gather to worship on “the first day of the week.” This would appear to make this a settled question. However, the question we are addressing is one of authority; where is the authority to gather to worship on “the first day of the week?” This is not a settled question!
Seeing that there is no commandment for God’s children to gather on “the first day of the week,” just how does God establish authority, that is binding upon his children today? How does God, through Jesus Christ, establish authority for something, when there is no commandment authorizing it? I submit to the reader, that the denominational folks do not have a clue! Other than, it just has always been this way! Well, tradition is good, when there is authority for it! But, just because denominational churches have always done it, and they do it because those before them get it, as in the Roman Catholic Church did it! Get this now, there is no authority in the fact that the Roman Catholic Church did/does something! They are not, the church the Lord Jesus Christ said, “… I will build my church; …” (Matt. 16:18). So, this being true, where is and how do we get authority for “the first of week” assembly of worship?
Friends, it is by implication! The church of the first century, under the oversight of the apostles of Christ, did in fact, gather to worship God “in spirit and in truth,” upon “the first day of the week!” Luke wrote this: “And upon the first day of the week, when the disciples came together to break bread, Paul preached unto them, ready to depart on the morrow; and continued his speech until midnight” (Acts 20:7). But this is not the only place such evidence is seen. Paul wrote to the church in Corinth: “Now concerning the collection for the saints, even so as I have given order to the churches of Galatia do ye. Upon the first day of the week let every one of you lay by him in store, as God hath prospered him, that there be no gatherings when I come” (1 Cor. 16:1-2). Here Paul gave a commandment concerning the collection and it was to be done on “the first day of the week.” The Greek words used here should be translated, “on each first day of the week” (Meyer, New Testament commentary) and the Expositor’s Greek New Testament also reads, “the rule previously laid down for Galatia: “On every first (day) of the week.” Then, there is this: “Κατα has a distributive force, every first day” (Vincent’s Word Study). Thus, the church in Corinth had a commandment but notice that Paul wrote: “even so as I have given order to the churches of Galatia do ye.” Therefore, the commandment was not limited to the church in Corinth! However, this is not all!
We must not forget the action of those who first obeyed the gospel on the first Pentecost after the death, burial, and resurrection of Jesus! What did they do? Luke wrote: “And they continued stedfastly in the apostles’ doctrine and fellowship, and in breaking of bread, and in prayers” (Acts 2:42). Taking the words, “breaking of bread” and putting it with the action of the church in Troas; as Luke wrote: “And upon the first day of the week, when the disciples came together to break bread, Paul preached unto them, ready to depart on the morrow; and continued his speech until midnight” (Acts 20:7).
There we have one of the ways authority is seen by implication. Let it be known, and attention is here called, we as children of God, do not establish authority! No church on earth has the right to “establish” authority! No, we simply recognize it as God’s established authority! As to his children gathering to worship “upon the first day of the week,” we submit to his authority! Yes, it is true, that such authority in the case of what day God’s children are to gather for worship, God has established that his children gather to worship him today, do so “upon the first day of the week!” He did this, not because he gave them a commandment, but he did so by implication, approved action of the first century church, under the oversight of the apostles of Christ!
If this is not so, then by what authority do we gather to worship God “upon the first day of the week?” Seeing there is no commandment, the authority must be seen by some other means! Keep in mind, the authority must come from the New Testament, of which Jesus said: “For this is my blood of the new testament;” as he gave the fruit of the vine to the disciples, introducing unto them the Lord’s Supper (Matt. 26:28).
In conclusion, keep in mind this old saying: “If the church under the oversight of the apostles did it, then, the church today can also do it by the same authority!” This being true, it means that this is also true: “If the church under the oversight of the apostles did not do it, then, the church of today may not do it!” This is not addressing method! As that is a totally different subject! Finally, let it be understood, that any implication found in a New Testament statement; being implied by the inspired writer, is just as true, as the statement that implies it!

Frank R. Williams

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Sep 26

IT’S THAT WORD AGAIN: IMPLICATION (3)

Where in the New Testament is the authority to take of the “Lord’s Supper” on “the first day of the week,” Sunday? It is not in any commandment, as there is no such commandment in the New Testament. Clearly, Jesus intended his supper to be eaten in his “Father’s kingdom,” for he said: “But I say unto you, I will not drink henceforth of this fruit of the vine, until that day when I drink it new with you in my Father’s kingdom” (Matt. 26:29). When was the first time it was done?
Luke reveals the answer to the question, in these words: “And they (Those of verse 41) continued stedfastly in the apostles’ doctrine and fellowship, and in breaking of bread, and in prayers” (Acts 2:42). Were these acts of worship done by the authority of Christ? Yes! As the apostles of Christ did none other! Is it right for the churches of Christ today to do the same thing? Yes! And in doing so, the churches of Christ today are doing so by the authority of Christ! Yet, it remains that there is no commandment for such action in the New Testament! This brings us to this question: Is there authority in action, that is done without a commandment?
Search the New Testament from beginning to end, and there is no commandment to take the Lord’s Supper upon “the first day of the week!” There is authority to take the Lord’s Supper, as Jesus himself gave such authority in his words to the disciples in Matthew 26:26-29. But when this was to be done, by way of commandment, is never found. However, we do read: “And upon the first day of the week, when the disciples came together to break bread, …” (Act 20:7). That the “Lord’s Supper” was taken on “the first day of the week” cannot be assailed in honesty! Yes, there are some who do teach, that these words do not refer to the Lord’s Supper, but they are only trying to “muddy the water,” as they have no other authority for when the saved of the first century took of the Supper!
Paul’s words to the Corinthians, uses the words “Lord’s Supper” in chapter eleven: “When ye come together therefore into one place, this is not to (as they were abusing the Lord’s Supper) eat the Lord’s supper” (1 Cor. 11:20). He then continues to write about how it is to be taken, (1 Corinthians eleven, verses 23-29). However, the apostle never reveals a day, upon which it is to be done! He refers back the Lord’s actions of Matthew twenty-six, verses twenty-six through twenty-nine but Jesus never gave a day! Therefore, the question continues: Upon what day of the week is the Lord’s Supper to be taken by the authority of Christ! Upon what day of the week do we take of it with our fellows who are in his Father’s kingdom?
You may be getting tried of reading about this subject, but it is so important to the Christian, that it must be covered, the day must be questioned. If the day cannot be identified, upon which the Lord’s Supper is to be taken, by the authority of Christ, then we are left with no authority on the subject and we are free to take of it upon the day of our choice; be it Sunday through Saturday! All debate is removed as to what day, as any day is acceptable! So, is there a way to determine what day the Lord’s Supper is to be taken? Is their authority for what day the Supper is to be taken? To the child of God these questions are important and needs answers!
Is there any authority in the words of Luke: “And upon the first day of the week, when the disciples came together to break bread, …” (Acts 20:7)? Is the phrase “break bread” the only reason for the disciples to come together? No, but it is certainly one reason but I dare not put one act of worship above another! (a synecdoche) Question: Did “the disciples,” which included Paul, come “together” to sing, to pray, teach, to give of their means; as Paul wrote to the Corinthians: “Upon the first day of the week let every one of you lay by him in store, as God hath prospered him, that there be no gatherings when I come” (1 Cor. 16:2)? Of course, they did just so!
Is there authority without a commandment? If so, and there is, how is it determined? This question remains unanswered to this point in our writings. To answer the question, when is the Lord’s Supper to be taken, is to be answered by implication! Remembering, no writing of the New Testament is directly addressed to us today but reaches us through impliction!
We are using the Lord’s Supper as our example, as nearly all denominational churches and all churches of Christ, to my knowledge, take the Lord’s Supper in their worship.

Frank R. Williams

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Sep 20

IT’S THAT WORD AGAIN: IMPLICATION (2)

The first thing those who were saved under the authority of Christ, under the oversight of the apostles of Christ, and under the teaching of the apostles of Christ, did was expressed by Luke in these words: “Then they that gladly received his word were baptized: and the same day there were added unto them about three thousand souls. And they continued stedfastly in the apostles’ doctrine and fellowship, and in breaking of bread, and in prayers” (Acts 2:41-42). Now, what day was this? It was on the first Pentecost after the death, burial, and resurrection of Jesus Christ on the first day of the week!
Question: Would the apostles of Christ, of whom Luke wrote: “And they were all filled with the Holy Spirit, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance” (Acts 2:4); allow those who were the first to be saved under the authority of Christ, have as their first act, do that which was unauthorized by the authority of Christ? God forbid! God forbid that any person who has any respect for Christ and his authority, answer this question, yes! It is true, that no recorded command was given but those who were the first to be forgiven of their sins, by means of the gospel of Christ; thus, the first ones to be saved under the authority of Christ, and under the oversight of his apostles, would never be allowed as their first act after being saved, to be one not authorized by Christ!
Could it be said, that those who do likewise today, are doing so by implication? Remembering there is no command to worship on the first day of the week. Therefore, how is it that churches of Christ gather to worship God on the first day of the week today? We do so by implication! With this in mind, let us here recall the words of Jesus to the woman at the well: “But the hour cometh, and now is, when the true worshippers shall worship the Father in spirit and in truth: for the Father seeketh such to worship him. God is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth” (John 4:23-24). Just when do you think, that time came of which Jesus spoke? Is it not true, that the first time, those who were saved in Acts 2:41, gathered to worship God “in spirit and in truth” did so as written by Luke? Here are his words once more: “Then they that gladly received his word were baptized: and the same day there were added unto them about three thousand souls. And they continued stedfastly in the apostles’ doctrine and fellowship, and in breaking of bread, and in prayers” (Acts 2:41-42). Notice the phrase, “and in breaking of bread.”
Before continuing with our subject, it is necessary that we note, there are some in the denominational churches who regard the words, “and in breaking of bread,” as referring to nothing more than a common meal! And yes, it is so sad to write, that there are some even within the churches of Christ today who have come to believe the same thing! When Jesus instituted this “supper,” Matthew wrote: “And as they were eating, Jesus took bread, and blessed it, and brake it, and gave it to the disciples, and said, Take, eat; this is my body. And he took the cup, and gave thanks, and gave it to them, saying, Drink ye all of it; For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins” (Matt. 26;26-28). Jesus took the occasion of the “Passover meal,” to introduce to his disciples what would be in his Father’s kingdom; once it came to be under his authority! Now, let us notice Jesus’ concluding words: “But I say unto you, I will not drink henceforth of this fruit of the vine, until that day when I drink it new with you in my Father’s kingdom” (Matt. 26:29). Question: Just when did Jesus, for the first time, “drink” “of this fruit of the vine” in the “Father’s kingdom?” Would it not be when those who were the first to obey the gospel and were “translated” “into the kingdom of his dear Son” (Col. 1:13)? Would not this be those who: “Then they that gladly received his word were baptized: and the same day there were added unto them about three thousand souls. And they continued stedfastly in the apostles’ doctrine and fellowship, and in breaking of bread, and in prayers” (Acts 2:41-42). Yes! Just who else would be in the right place, to do so, other than, those who were saved on that Pentecost day?
If you have not noticed, this is all teaching by implication! We are taking the parts and putting them where the apostles of Christ put them! Remembering, there is no command to gather and worship, wherein the Lord’s Supper is taken on “the first day of the week.” Luke, as he wrote “The Acts of the Apostles,” revealed worship, “in spirit and in truth,” wherein Jesus did in fact, drink with the saved “of this fruit of the vine” in his “Father’s kingdom!”
What day was it? It was “the first day of the week;” it is as David wrote in the long ago: “This is the day which the LORD hath made; we will rejoice and be glad in it.” (Psa. 118:24).
No command in the New Testament is directly given to us today; those all reach us by implication!

Frank R. Williams

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Sep 13

IT’S THAT WORD AGAIN: IMPLICATION (1)

Have you ever wondered, or questioned why denominational churches gather to worship on Sunday, the first day of the week? Let’s take this one more step, have you ever wondered or questioned why churches of Christ gather to worship on Sunday, the first day of the week? It is so natural, no one appears to question the gathering of churches on Sunday, the first day of the week.
Before looking into the above questions, the subject of implication, needs to be addressed first. There are some who rejected the idea that Jesus taught by implication, or that other inspired writers of the New Testament taught by implication. This is a very important subject, if we are to understand the subject of authority as revealed in the New Testament. If we, understand first, that no part of the New Testament was written to us, directly! This idea is horrifying to many, as they do not understand how New Testament authority reaches us in the 21st century! Yet, the subject of gathering to worship on Sunday, the first day of the week, falls within this subject.
Did Jesus teach by implication? Yes, he did! Here is a case in point. Here is the question that started the subject, were Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, alive at the time Jesus walked upon the face of the earth? Are Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, alive today? Before reading the text, the over all question started with the Sadducees coming to Jesus with what they thought was an unanswerable question. Keep in mind, the Sadducees did not believe in the resurrection. Therefore, after giving their story of a woman, who had married seven brothers, as each did and according to the law of Moses, the next bother was to marry the woman upon the death of her husband (Matt. 22:23-28). With this, here is their question: “Therefore in the resurrection whose wife shall she be of the seven? for they all had her” (Matt. 22:28). How could Jesus possibly answer their question? Jesus would teach more than one thing; first he said: “Ye do err, not knowing the scriptures, nor the power of God” (verse 29). Do not over look these words, as they apply to so many today; as they “do err, not knowing the scriptures, nor the power of God!” Second, Jesus said: “For in the resurrection they neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are as the angels of God in heaven” (verse 29). In the resurrection we will not have flesh and blood bodies, by which marriage takes place, but we shall all be as “the angels of God in heaven!” Spiritual bodies, not physical. Third, Jesus said: “But as touching the resurrection of the dead, have ye not read that which was spoken unto you by God, saying, I am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob? God is not the God of the dead, but of the living” (verse 31 – 32). It is here that Jesus teaches by implication! Did you get it? Answer this question: Did Jesus say that Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, were alive at the time he spoke? Read it again, God had said in the past, after these three were dead: “I am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob?” No, Jesus never said that these three were alive as he spoke! But, he did teach that Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, were very much alive as he spoke, for Jesus did say: “God is not the God of the dead, but of the living;” therefore, Abraham, Isaac and Jacob were alive when Jesus spoke. Jesus was teaching by implication. Jesus expected his hearers to reach the correct conclusion on their own, with the information he gave them implication!
Now, why do denominational churches gather on Sunday, the first day of the week to worship; why do churches of Christ gather on Sunday, the first day of the week to worship? First, this question: Is there a command to gather and worship God upon Sunday, the first day of the week? No! Nowhere in the New Testament did any writer every command that the church gather to worship God on Sunday, the first day of the week! This may be a total surprise to some; but nevertheless, it is true! There is no such command!
It is a total surprise to some, yes, even to some members of the churches of Christ, that the reason churches of Christ gather to worship God on Sunday, the first day of the week, is by implication: the church under the oversight of the apostles of Christ gathered to worship God, on “the first day of the week (Acts 20:7).
First, the first act that those who were saved did, is written by Luke in these words: “Then they that gladly received his word were baptized: and the same day there were added unto them about three thousand souls. And they continued stedfastly in the apostles’ doctrine and fellowship, and in breaking of bread, and in prayers” (Acts 2:41-42). Is this good enough for you, to gather to worship God on the first day of the week?

Frank R. Williams

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Sep 06

WE DON’T WANT YOUR WORDS OF SYMPATHY OR YOUR PRAYERS

Not long after a shooting, a woman was heard saying something like this: “We don’t want your words of sympathy or your prayers!” Just what do these words express? Well, first let us understand that in the moments following a tragedy, people say many things without thinking and would take them “back” if they could. Second, people often express what they really think at such moments! Without trying to prove which motive the words express, let us look at the words themselves.
First, let us take the word “sympathy” Just what does this word mean? Merriam/Webster gives: 1) “an affinity, association, or relationship between persons;” 2) “inclination to think or feel alike : emotional or intellectual according sympathy with their goals;” and 3) “the act or capacity of entering into or sharing the feelings or interests of another.” In short, sympathy is what one feels for another in time of stress. However, before continuing, let me call your attention to the words of Hastings: “The subject of sympathy, considered in its relation to Jesus Christ, is so large as to be almost co-extensive with His whole life and work. The Incarnation and the Atonement, whatever be the exact theological meaning of the two words, are undoubtedly exhibitions of the intense sympathy which resulted not only in the human ministry of Christ, but in the redemption of the world.” (Hastings Dictionary of the New Testament). With this to reject sympathy is to reject Jesus Christ! The New Testament uses, the King James Version, the word “compassion” and not sympathy; as in Matthew 9:36: “But when he saw the multitudes, he was moved with compassion (splagchnizomai) on them, because they fainted, and were scattered abroad, as sheep having no shepherd.” The Greek word means: “to be moved in the inward parts, to feel compassion” (Strong). The word “compassion” appears about forty-three times in the New Testament. To express that you are not interested in the “sympathy” of others, is to reject the true heart felt concern of the person/people making a statement! Sad indeed! There are many people, citizens of the United States of America, who are deeply touched by the loss of life, due to a madman taking the lives of others. In fact, what kind of heart would not cry out in dispair? Certainly not the heart of a Christian!
Second, let us here notice three verses that deal with the subject of expressing and showing sympathy: 1) Gal. 6:2 – “Bear ye one another’s burdens, and so fulfil the law of Christ.” The Greek word for “bear” is “bastazo” and like most Greek words has several meanings, one is “to take up with the hands.” (Thayer). In the world of the first century, most of the work done was using the hands. It was a very physical world, thus, to “bear” one another’s burdens, which is the Greek, “baros” and means: “heaviness, weight, burden, trouble;” therefore, putting the two words together we are to do our best to relieve the “weight,” and “troubles” of others. This may be grief or physical burdens. 2) Col. 3:12 – “Put on therefore, as the elect of God, holy and beloved, bowels of mercies, kindness, humbleness of mind, meekness, longsuffering.” The Greek word for “bowels” is “splagchnon” and expresses: “the seat of the tenderer affections, especially kindness, benevolence, compassion; hence our heart (tender mercies, affections, etc.).” (Thayer). Thus, from the heart Christians are to reach out to help others from their inner most being that is full of “kindness, benevolence, compassion.” When others are hurt, be it physically or spiritually, the Christian is there with a heart of “kindness, benevolence, and compassion.” And 3) “Therefore all things whatsoever ye would that men should do to you, do ye even so to them: for this is the law and the prophets” Matt. 7:12. These words need no exegesis, as they are self-expressive! It is easy to see from these three verses, that it is the nature of a Christian to reach out to others who are suffering, to express not only words but action! This is true, even if the other person has no interest in such action.
Now, let us turn our attention to the subject of prayer. Just what does it mean with a person says, “I don’t want your prayers?” First, it denies the existence of God. As God is the one who is addressed in our prayers when petitions are made for others. Second, and this naturally follows, that a non-existent God cannot or in the case that God does exist, which he does, will not answer prayer. Therefore, let us take the case, that Hurricane Dorian was first forecast to hit Florida hard. However, let us say Christians prayed that Dorian would make a northern turn and miss mainland Florida. Can anyone, and this includes the God denying atheist, prove that God was not answering the many prayers of Christians as Dorian did move more north and not west? Of course, not!
Therefore, such expression as: “We don’t want your words of sympathy or your prayers!” Is the atheist revealing what they really believe! These words express the true nature of much of the America today. As we, America in general, ask, “What is wrong with America?” The first conclusion should be and must be, that America has turned their back upon God! The Old Testament is full of examples of Israel turning her back upon God, and the result that followed! Yes, Israel is another time, as God did work with them directly and he does not work with America directly today; nevertheless, the result would be the same in today’s world! America should not expect any favors from God.
Finally, the words of Peter fit here: “The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance” (2 Pet. 3:9). Yes, even with godless America God is “longsuffering,” “not willing that any should perish.” Nevertheless, America will fall in her own wickedness, unless she repents!

Frank R. Williams

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Aug 30

MY SINS ARE FORGIVEN

Do we think about the fact that our sins have really been forgiven? It may be the case that the person who obeyed the gospel of Christ later in life, that such a person thinks more about the forgiveness of sins, than one who obeyed the gospel of Christ early in life. Why? Well, in a figure of speech, “the more that is in the bucket, the heavier the load,” as in the one who feels the greater relief when the “bucket” is empty, is the one who carried the bucket when full!
Jesus once put a question to Simon Peter: “There was a certain creditor which had two debtors: the one owed five hundred pence, and the other fifty. And when they had nothing to pay, he frankly forgave them both. Tell me therefore, which of them will love him most?” (Luke 7:41-42). We have Peter’s reply in the inspired record, but what is your answer? The answer given, identifies the difference between the mind of some and the mind of others. Therefore, Peter’s answer is so important to our thinking. So, what was Peter’s answer? He replied to Jesus in these words: “I suppose that he, to whom he forgave most” (Luke 7:43). We would be amiss, if we did not note Peter’s use of the word “suppose.” This is the Greek, “hupolambano” which means as used here, “to take up in the mind 4a) to assume, suppose” (Thayer). But according to Plummer, there is a little more in this word; as he wrote, “Here with an air of supercilious indifference.” It appears that Peter was giving his opinion with a little superior attitude. Nevertheless, anyone who has “walked under a light pole” could answer the Lord’s question! But, as often is the case, the Lord did not stop here.
Jesus continued with these words: “Thou hast rightly judged” (Luke 7:43). Jesus’ use of the word “judged,” is also interesting. It is the Greek “krino,” setting aside what might have been Peter’s “superior attitude,” Jesus said that he had “rightly judged.” The Greek word means “to separate”, as in separating the information correctly; which is what one has done when “judging,” if he has done so correctly!” Even if his attitude is wrong!
Now you know that Jesus is not done with the subject, nor is he done with Peter. It might be surprising to read, or as in Peter’s case, to hear what Jesus says next. Here are his words, as he turned to the woman: “Seest thou this woman? I entered into thine house, thou gavest me no water for my feet: but she hath washed my feet with tears, and wiped them with the hairs of her head” (Luke 7:44). Before going on, we must know about this woman, to whom he directed Peter’s attention. Reaching back in the text, the event started when a Pharisees desired that Jesus come and eat with him (Luke 7:36). During this time, “a woman in the city, which was a sinner.” Here Luke gives us the opportunity to note what the word “sinner” means. It is the Greek “hamartolos” and it means: “devoted to sin” and “pre-eminently sinful.” (Thayer). This must be remembered when someone says, “We are all sinners!” To commit a sin, from time to time, does not mean that such a one is a “sinner!” This person is not one “devoted to sin!” Here is what this woman did; Luke wrote of her: “brought an alabaster box of ointment, And stood at his feet behind him weeping, and began to wash his feet with tears, and did wipe them with the hairs of her head, and kissed his feet, and anointed them with the ointment” (Luke 7:37-38). Keep in mind that the “feet” are the dirtiest part of the physical body. As Jesus allowed this “sinner” to wash his feet, Luke informs us what was in the heart of the Pharisee, as he wrote: “Now when the Pharisee which had bidden him saw it, he spake within himself, saying, This man, if he were a prophet, would have known who and what manner of woman this is that toucheth him: for she is a sinner” (Luke 7:39). Please note that the Pharisee uses the word “sinner” once more!
It is with this background that Jesus has spoken to Peter. Jesus’ words were: “There was a certain creditor which had two debtors: the one owed five hundred pence, and the other fifty. And when they had nothing to pay, he frankly forgave them both” (Luke 7:41). It is here that Jesus questioned Peter: “Tell me therefore, which of them will love him most?” (Luke 7:42). But Jesus’ subject is “the forgiveness of sins!” Which one would love Jesus the most? The correct answer! The one who was the greater “debtor!” In other words, the one who had committed the most sins in his life!
Finally, Jesus said: “Wherefore I say unto thee, Her sins, which are many, are forgiven; for she loved much: but to whom little is forgiven, the same loveth little” (Luke 7:47). Oh, how precious are the words: “Thy sins are forgiven” (Luke 7:48). Truly I may say: “My sins are forgiven!” But only when I have obeyed the gospel of Christ (Rom. 1:16).

— Frank R. Williams

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Aug 23

IS “IN CHRIST” EQUAL TO BEING “IN THE TEACHING OF CHRIST?” (3)

Well, it has been good to get your minds on the two subjects: 1) “WHAT DOES IT MEAN TO BE IN CHRIST?” and 2) “IS “IN CHRIST” EQUAL TO BEING “IN THE TEACHING OF CHRIST?” It was hoped that the reader would truly give deep thought to these two questions. Perhaps you had never even thought about either.
In this last article on these two subjects, it is not our intention to reach a conclusion but to get your mind to give the necessary time and attention to thinking and study! If we are studying, we are giving ourselves the opportunity to grow spiritually and come to a better understanding of the New Testament. This should be the aim of all of us!
Here are two things to think about: 1) we know that abiding in “the teaching of Christ” brings fellowship with God, the Father and the Son” (2 John 9) and 2) is this also true of those who are “in Christ?” Paul wrote that we are “baptized into Christ” (Gal. 3:17). Therefore, if we have obeyed “the gospel of Christ,” (Rom.1:16), then, we have been “baptized into Christ.” Not only this but Paul went on to write in the same verse, that if we have been “baptized into Christ,” then, we have “have put on Christ.” Therefore, the real question is this: “Is abiding in the teaching (doctrine) of Christ,’ which produces fellowship with God the Father and the Son, equal to being “into Christ” and having “put on Christ?”
Give thought to this, is fellowship with God the Father and the Son, brought about by our being “baptized into Christ” and having “put on Christ?” This must be true! How could one be “in Christ” and not be in “fellowship with God the Father and the Son?” How could one, who has “put on Christ, “not have fellowship with God the Father and the Son?” Let me answer the first question: “How could one be ‘baptized into Christ’ and not be in ‘fellowship with God the Father and the Son?” If a person who was, as in the past, has been “baptized into Christ,” then, becomes unfaithful, thus, having “put off Christ,” and no longer “abides in the teaching of Christ.” However, it is to be noted, that such a person no longer “abideth not in the doctrine of Christ;” whereby John wrote that such a person: “Whosoever transgresseth, and abideth not in the doctrine of Christ, hath not God;” is a person who “hath not God!” It stands, therefore, that such a person no longer is one who has Christ on, as in a “put on Christ” state. One can get lost in this going and coming but if we can see the person who no longer abides in “the teaching of Christ,” taking off his clothes, as he stops abiding in “the teaching of Christ;” then, we are seeing the right action.
This complete subject goes back to “obeying the gospel,” even though some among us no longer view this as important! Here is what happens: 1) a person hearing the report, the word of God, then, believes it is gospel (Mark 16:15, 16): this person believes “that God is, and that he is a rewarder of them that diligently seek him” (Heb. 11:6), that Jesus is the Son of God (John 8:24), believes that the gospel is God’s power “unto salvation” (Rom. 1:16) (and other things, yes, other things.); 2) now believing the gospel of Christ, he is brought to repent, a change of mind which leads him to a change in life (Acts 17:30-31), as he now believes that he will answer to God in the final judgment; 3) he is now ready to vow in his heart/mind that he is subject to Christ, that his loyalty belongs to Christ, that this loyalty is found only in obeying the commandments of Christ, as Jesus said, “If ye love me, keep my commandments” (John 14:15); 4) this person is now prepared to follow the commands of the apostles of Christ, who said: “Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit” (Acts 2:38). Here is the person of who Paul wrote: “For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ” (Gal. 3:27). Here is the person who “abides in the teaching of Christ,” here is the person who has “fellowship with God the Father and the Son.”
This point must not be missed when covering the subjects of “into Christ” and “put on Christ.” Remember that we are “baptized into Christ,” and at this time we “put on Christ.” Here are Paul’s words: “For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ” (Gal. 3:27). As the subject is one of being “baptized,” it is directly related to the remission of past sins, in fact, all the sins that we have committed before this point in our lives. These sins are washed away, they are no longer in the mind of God and will never be in the mind of God again! In this we can see ourselves rapped in the arms of Christ, as we are “baptized into Christ” and “have put on Christ.” Salvation is the subject, that is salvation, as in being saved from past sins!
As we conclude, consider this, is the person who has “put on Christ,” the same person who “abides in the teaching of Christ?” Yes, he is! Therefore, as a person becomes unfaithful to “the teaching of Christ,” he is taking off, as in taking off clothes, “Christ!” Yes, we have gone in a circle, but we have come back to the same place we started, or there is no circle! The full circle equals fellowship with “God the Father and the Son” and this equals salvation! There is nothing greater but heaven; however, being in heaven depends on the completed circle!

Frank R. Williams

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Aug 16

IS “IN CHRIST” EQUAL TO BEING “IN THE TEACHING OF CHRIST?” (2)

The question under which this article is being written, is a most challenging one, to say the least! It is one that many have not even thought of. On the subject of questions, questions are a good way to advance one’s study. As questions open areas of thought, that have not come before us before. Questions take us deeper into the subject, whatever it may be. At the same time, there are some people who are fearful of questions, as they are afraid of the what the answer to the question maybe. In other words, some people are happy with the present knowledge, though it is incomplete!
At the same time, some folks believe they know it all, and have no desire to search, even for a better understanding of the subject. This state might be stated in the following; they are quite happy in their “knowledge” of the subject and do not want to be disturbed. Even a question, in regard to a subject, is unwelcome to some, as they have believed it, their parents believed, and if they changed what they have believed, it might mean that they are lost, the parents are lost and this is more than they are willing to consider!
With the above thoughts in our minds, we shall attack the subject: “IS “IN CHRIST” EQUAL TO BEING “IN THE TEACHING OF CHRIST?” Having written six articles addressing the subject, “WHAT DOES IT MEAN TO BE IN CHRIST?;” we have at least gained a little better understanding of what it means to be “in Christ.” In the shortest answer, to be “in Christ” means that we are saved; having our past sins forgiven! At this point in our lives, our hearts/minds are filled with joy! For we have achieved the first goal in life; salvation! This helps us understand Paul’s words to the Roman church; as he wrote: “For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek”(Rom. 1:16). Why would one be ashamed of the gospel of Christ? First, it “it is God’s power unto salvation; that is the forgiveness of the sins we have committed unto this point in our lives. Second, it has brought us to an understanding and reality of a world undivided! For it has revealed unto us, that we must be one in spirit/mind, that all are equal before God: “There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus” (Gal. 3:28); and if one does not have this spirit, such a person cannot enter Christ. Paul also wrote on this subject: “For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit” (1 Cor. 1213); thus, one is not “in Christ” if he has a superior spirit/mind, as “one spirit” is a requirement to be “in Christ.” So many times, this is not even thought of when we are baptized! Yet, it is like something that one does not think of but is known in the mind.
If we can separate “the gospel of Christ” from “the teaching of Christ,” only for the sake of understanding that “the gospel of Christ” is part of “the teaching of Christ.” (2 John 9). As it is good for the moment, to see that “the gospel of Christ,” first related to forgiveness of the sins that we have committed up to the time we “obey the gospel of Christ.” Having taken part of God’s power unto salvation, then, we move on in “the teaching of Christ” for our spiritual growth! As Peter’s last written inspired words state: “But grow in grace, and in the knowledge of our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ. To him be glory both now and for ever. Amen” (2 Pet. 3:18) Indeed, this is a lifetime work! As we grow up into the fulness of Christ: “And hath put all things under his feet, and gave him to be the head over all things to the church, Which is his body, the fulness of him that filleth all in all” (Eph. 1:22-23). Here the total surrender, as in full submission to “the teaching of Christ” is set before us! Christ is the head of his “body,” the church! Thus, all who are in the “body” are those who have enbibed, taken into their spirit/mind the surrender of the total self!
It is “hoped” that the reader is beginning to see that being “in Christ” is being in “the teaching of Christ.” It is totally unthinkable to believe that one can be “in Christ” and not in “the teaching of Christ!” What a grand subject: “IS “IN CHRIST” EQUAL TO BEING “IN THE TEACHING OF CHRIST?” Do you think that you can be “in Christ” but not “in the teaching of Christ?” Do you believe that you can be in “the teaching of Christ” but not “in Christ?” As the apostle wrote: “God forbid” (Rom. 6:2)!

Frank R. Williams

Permanent link to this article: http://okcsbs.com/is-in-christ-equal-to-being-in-the-teaching-of-christ-2/

Aug 09

IS “IN CHRIST” EQUAL TO BEING “IN THE TEACHING OF CHRIST?” (1)

Sometimes we read a verse or a phrase in the New Testament and we think we understand it; however, is this true? Well, yes, in many cases it is true, we do understand it! On the other hand, it may be the case that we have read it and heard it, so many times we now just read right over it without any thought at all.
In the last six articles I have written, the two words, “in Christ,” which have been at the heart of all six articles, in which I tried to get the reader to simply think! Questions were asked, in order to get the reader to think and just maybe, do a little study as to what it means to be “in Christ.” We do know somethings for sure; such as, Paul wrote: “For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ” (Gal. 3:27). In that, not only are we to be baptized “into Christ,” but in so doing, we have “put on Christ.” Well, just what does it mean to “put on Christ?” Is it any easier to be “in Christ,” than, it is to “put on Christ?”
For instance, Adam Clarke wrote this: “As many of you as have been baptized into Christ – All of you who have believed in Christ as the promised Messiah, and received baptism as a public proof (The word “proof” was in blue in the quote, frw) that ye had received Christ as your Lord and Savior, have put on Christ – …” Does he get the point of the words, “baptized into Christ,” correctly? Does it mean nothing, that New Testament says nothing about “a public proof that ye had received Christ as your Lord and Savior, have put on Christ!” Paul wrote, “As many of you,” as in no one else, “as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ.” With whom do you stand, with Adam Clarke or Paul?
Albert Barnes wrote this: “As have been baptized into Christ – Or “unto” (είς, eis) – the same preposition which in Galatians 3:24 is rendered unto) Christ. That is, they were baptized with reference to him, or receiving him as the Saviour; …” (Barnes Notes on the Whole Bible). When it comes to the Greek word, “eis,” the text must be allowed to determine if the word should be translated it “unto,” or “into.” Unto is forward looking, that is, a thing is done with a view to, receiving whatever the next words say. Where on the other hand, “into” is a present action! It is done now! Paul’s use of the word “eis” in the text before us and is followed with “have put on Christ.” These words are not forward looking but present looking. In other words, the person who has been “baptized into Christ,” is a person who has “put on Christ” at the same time; presently!
Strong gives us this, which will help us in our understanding of the words, “put on”, “in the sense of sinking into a garment.” The garment is fully “put on,” as Christ is fully “put on!” When is Christ put on? Christ is “put on” when a person is “baptized into Christ.” “Putting on Christ,” takes place and only takes place, when a person is “baptized into Christ,” and at no other time or no other way! Question, is a person saved at this very time? Yes! The person who has been “baptized into Christ,” has “put on Christ” and is saved at that very moment! Please understand, you cannot physically see Christ being put on at this moment! Fact is, you cannot see it at all. Yet, Clarke wrote, that one “received baptism as a public proof that ye had received Christ as your Lord and Savior, have put on Christ.” I am sorry, but this is not what Paul wrote! It is not being mean spirited, it is not being ugly, to write a truth! It is done to save souls from an eternal hell.
Here are the words of A.T. Robertson: “did put on Christ” … “This verb is common in the sense of putting on garments … He does not here mean that one enters into Christ and so is saved by means of baptism after the teaching of the mystery religions, but just the opposite.” (Robertson Word Pictures in the New Testament). Robertson and others who believe the same thing, would have us believe that a person may have “put on Christ” but that Paul “does not here mean that one enters into Christ and so is saved by means of baptism …” Just what do the words, “have put on Christ,” mean? Robertson would have us believe, that the words, “have put on Christ,” do not mean it; they do not mean that one has “put on Christ!” This is the case, even though he understands the true meaning of the word, as he wrote: “in the sense of putting on garments.”
Well, we have not answered our question, but we have learned a few things about what others teach on this verse and it is not what Paul wrote! The key words are those who “have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ.” If one has “put on Christ,” that person is saved, as salvation “in Christ” and the only way “into Christ” is to be baptized “into Christ!”
Before concluding this article, why will people write volumes teaching what Paul did not teach? If one has been “baptized into Christ” and by that act, such a person has “put on Christ,” and that such a person is clothed in Christ, that person is saved. Just how could such a person be lost at that moment?

Frank R. Williams

Permanent link to this article: http://okcsbs.com/is-in-christ-equal-to-being-in-the-teaching-of-christ-1/

Aug 02

WHAT DOES IT MEAN TO BE IN CHRIST? (6)

It is here we ask that the reader recall the thoughts of the first five articles. To be sure such is a daunting task! As we study the subject under which we have written, it is good to recall the words of Jesus: “Because strait is the gate, and narrow is the way, which leadeth unto life, and few there be that find it” (Matt. 7:14). In other words, only a few souls/spirits will seek out the “strait” gate with its “narrow” way in order to be saved! This is because of the nature of the strait and narrow!
May we just here, put the “all spiritual blessings,” with Paul’s words to Timothy, as they also tell us what God has done: “All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works” (2 Tim. 3:16-17). God has not left out one thing that we need in being pleasing and acceptable to him “in Christ!” Do you count these as spiritual blessings? If not, you should! God has already given all these things to mankind that are needed to be acceptable to him and to get us “in Christ!” In the words of Christ, “the teaching of Christ,” God has given all that “thoroughly furnished” us, “unto all good works!” The “good works” which are acceptable to God are all “in Christ!” Oh, we have been so blessed! Do you count these as spiritual blessings? If not, you should! God has already given all these things to mankind and as a child of God, we are enjoying them now!
Much more could and should be written about the subject of what it means to be “in Christ!” After all, God saw fit to give us twenty-seven “books” to cover the subject! At the same time, we must not “divorce” ourselves from the thirty-nine books of the Old Testament! For as Paul wrote: “For whatsoever things were written aforetime were written for our learning, that we through patience and comfort of the scriptures might have hope” (Rom. 15:4). However, we must move on in our study.
We have arrived at the place and time to answer the all-important question: “How does one get into Christ?” After all, if we could understand all there is to understand about what it means to be “in Christ,” yet it would not benefit us, if we did not know how to get “into Christ!” All that we might know about the blessings that come from being “in Christ,” would all be/would go for nothing; if we do not know how to get “into Christ!” Paul answers our question: “For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ” (Gal. 3:27). Let us back up one verse, which reads: “For ye are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus.” Why were the “we” of the text children of God? Please notice that verse twenty-seven begins with that little word “For” and this is the Greek word “gar,” which is “A primary particle; properly assigning a reason.” (Strong). What is the reason “ye are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus?” It is that “we have all been baptized into Christ” and with that, we have “put on Christ!” Yes, here it is! No one who has not been “baptized into Christ,” has “put on Christ” and there is no salvation to anyone who has not “put on Christ!” Of course, it is understood, that those who are not accountable are not under such words! It is so sad that so many, even the majority, refuse to accept the words of Christ as the Holy Spirit put them in the “pen” of Paul! It is not that the words are hard to understand, but it is that a doctrine, other than that of Christ, has been believed and accepted beforehand! Such people have hardened their hearts against “the gospel of Christ,” which is God’s power unto salvation (Rom. 1:16). Yes, here it is! No one who has not been baptized “into Christ,” has “put on Christ” and there is no salvation to anyone who has not “put on Christ!” Some will say, well this/that is just too hard, and I will not accept it! People have trained themselves to never get “out-side” their own doctrine! They refuse to “think,” which is a necessary requirement, if one is ever to get “in Christ;” if one is ever to “put on Christ.”
In conclusion, to this series of articles, it must not be overlooked that Paul used the words “in Christ” at the end of verse three (Eph. 1:3)! Though the blessings were for all mankind, it remains a fact, that only those who are “in Christ” receive them! Once more we turn to the words of Albert Barnes: “The leading thing on which the apostle dwells is God‘s eternal purpose – his everlasting counsel in regard to the salvation of man.” But it is once more pointed out that the “blessings” are received only by those who are “in Christ,” those who have “put on Christ.” This “purpose” is based upon one thing: “For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life” (John 3:16). Or as Paul wrote: “But God commendeth his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us. Much more then, being now justified by his blood, we shall be saved from wrath through him” (Rom. 5:8-9).
For these reasons we, who are “in Christ,” who have “put on Christ,” should be ever ready to worship God, “in spirit and in truth: (John 4:24), as we offer our humble thanks to him for his love! It was this love that was the cause behind God’s action of providing the means of salvation “in Christ!”

Frank R. Williams

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