You may have noticed that words under which we have been writing have changed from article to article. Why is this? It is because the Greek word translated “to” and “unto” is “ace” and may be translated to the English “to,” “unto,” “by” “for,” as it often is, such as in Acts 2:38, “for the remission of sins.” The context may determine which is the best English word to convey the thought in the text. Through for the most part, all four may do so, while the English “for” may be the weakest.
We need to back up just a little in this article on the subject “from faith unto faith” in order to make a point or two. Starting with verse eighteen: “For if the inheritance be of the law, it is no more of promise: but God gave it to Abraham by promise.” (chapter 3). Here the Greek word translated “for” is “gar,” which is one of my favorite little Greek words. This word gives the reason why the preceding verse is truth. Therefore, notice verse seventeen: “And this I say, that the covenant, that was confirmed before of God in Christ, the law, which was four hundred and thirty years after, cannot disannul, that it should make the promise of none effect.” Here is the reason for verse eighteen being true; it is because of: “For if the inheritance be of the law, it is no more of promise: but God gave it to Abraham by promise.” “The “promise” God gave to Abraham way before the law was. In one respect, we might see it this: “the promise” of a blessing coming through “the seed of Abraham” was given before the law of Moses came into being, before it was! It leap “frogged” over the law and landed in Christ! The three people who received the promised, were all three: 1) Abraham, 2) Isaac, and 3) Jacob, each one before the law; thus, no part of the law of Moses. Therefore, Paul wrote: “For if the inheritance be of the law, it is no more of promise: but God gave it to Abraham by promise.” This is an important point; therefore, the Holy Spirit made here is Galatians.
Paul now asked a most natural question: “Wherefore then serveth the law?” (verse 19). The law of Moses had a most important purpose, as Paul now answers: “It was added because of transgressions, till the seed should come to whom the promise was made.” It was “added,” the Greek “prostithemi” which means: “to place additionally, that is, lay beside.” In other words, there was “the promise” and running with it was the “law of Moses.” The law aided “the promise” to run its course and arrive at Jesus, the Christ, who is the promised “seed.” Now notice as Paul completed his point: “to place additionally, that is, lay beside. The point here “the promise” ran a long side of the law but was not part of it. Just for your information, let me make this point that is so often just read over; the pronoun “it” refers to the words “the promise.” “It was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator.” The word “angels” means messagers, the prophets. One more point just here as the Holy Spirit said: “it was in the hand of a mediator.” We know what a “mediator” as it is used today; however, it is the Greek “mesites” and means, “go between.” This “mediator” would to serve. The “promise” and the law of Moses ran along side of each other until “the seed” should come. “The seed” was Jesus Christ!
Now, let us get back to our point of these artricles, as Paul now makes a most important point, and it is a natural point: “Is the law then against the promises of God?” Was it? Here Paul used two of my favorite, “God forbid,” which is the Greek “ginomai” and means: “to cause to be.” As you can see, the Greek word does not carry the idea of the English, however! God “caused it to be! What did God cause to be? Paul answers: “for if there had been a law given which could have given life.” The Greek word “gar” is the Greek used by Paul, which is a reason that it is true: “if there had been a law given which could have given life.” Was there such a “law?” Here Paul writes: “verily righteousness should have been by the law.” Was there such a law? No! As in “God forbid!” The apostle continued with: “verily righteousness should have been by the law.” Is this not reason? Yes, it is in every way! However, we already know that Paul had written in Romans: “For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek” (Rom. 1:16-17). The “righteousness of God” is in “the gospel of Christ which is God’s power unto salvation or righteousness!” Here the apostle makes the point: “But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe.” Here our question is: is this “the promise of the faith,” or is it “the promise of faith?” I do believe you can see that even without the article “the faith is the intent but lo and behold” the article is “the” in the text! The word translated “by” is the Greek “ek:” we know it is “out of the,” and in the case here, “out of the faith!? The “promise” of the faith, and what else could it be, but by “the faith” as it was not through the law of Moses, as the promise ran beside the law of Moses and was not within it! Paul is addressing “the faith once for all time delivered unto the saints (Jude 3). Before concluding this article, let me point out, that, “the faith” was so that we might “believe!” There is our “From faith to (unto) faith!!
Frank R. Williams